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Is there a study guide along with"Know the Bible in 30 Days"?
by Answerbag Staff on July 11th, 2010
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What year did ronald knox publish the new testament?
by Answerbag Staff on July 6th, 2010
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Who publishes the new King James Bible?
by Answerbag Staff on June 14th, 2010
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Were multiple wives/concubines only in the Old Testament or also the New? Anyone ever count them for a grand total? Dozens/hundreds/more?
by RosieGHM Jetpacker on May 12th, 2012
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Do you think the Bible would stand up in court being accused of fraud?
by Legion on May 17th, 2012
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You're reading Which of the following Bible translation is the most accurate relative to the oldest, and best manuscripts? Why?
Comments
LOL. Dude your whole answer was based around how closely the translations adhere to Jehovah's Witness dogma - pretty funny.
Hey that's cool I was fully expecting the Catholics to choose the NJB, the Mormons the JST or the KJV, and the Evangelicals to pick the ESV.
It just goes to show that none of us are immune to presuppositions.
by Mister IT is trying to Liahona outta here on December 15th, 2009
Translating Exodus 3:14 as "I am" is an incorrect translation. Not JW dogma.
http://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?Strongs=H1961&t=NASB
At Exodus 3:14, the verb Hayab, which means "to be" was used. http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=ex3:14-15;&version=NASB;NLT;ESV;TNIV;HCSB; Many translators still translate it as "I AM" and refer to “I AM” as God’s name to be remembered and go to John 8:58 in support of the trinity. If all Bible translators translated Exodus 3:14 as something like: "I WILL BE WHAT I WILL BE" (which is what it really means), rather than just putting it as a footnote, that might take away from the confusion. http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Exodus3:14;&version=AMP;ESV;NIV;NASB;NLT;
http://scripture4all.org/OnlineInterlinear/OTpdf/exo3.pdf
אֶהְיֶה
aeie
I-shall-become
Taking out God's name and replacing it with LORD as the ESV does is quite an injustice that takes away from the Father being the only true God. Most people that I have talked to that are not JW's have no idea why Psalms 110:1 says "The LORD says to my Lord.." like the ESV does. Why remove God's name if he saw fit to have it in the Hebrew scriptures almost 7000 times? Nothing to do with JW dogma, just keeping it real.
by Texasescimo on December 15th, 2009
William Tyndale understood Exodus 3:14 coming from the verb meaning "to be".
Exodus 3:14 Then sayde God vnto Moses: I wilbe what I wilbe: ad he sayde, this shalt thou saye vnto the children of Israel: I wilbe dyd send me to you.
http://wesley.nnu.edu/biblical_studies/tyndale/
by Texasescimo on December 15th, 2009
Joseph Smith was challenged to read Greek, which the NT was written in, and he could not. How could a Bible transliterator properly write an English version of the Bible and not understand Greek? Smith was found to be false and an inaccurate translator himself. Sorry.
by PhileoTruth on December 15th, 2009
I don't think that I gave any links to Joseph Smith. You might copy and paste the referred links into your browser to get the context of what I am saying.
by Texasescimo on December 15th, 2009