by Anon on December 18th, 2007

Anon

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Who said: "are there no prisons? are there no workhouses?" Why did they say it?

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  • by John on June 12th, 2009

    John

    Ebenezer Scrooge. Fiction by Charles Dickens, but one thing was real: The UK was only good for the king/queen and the rich at that time. The UK had poorhouses, also called workhouses in the 1700's and early 1800's. Those who lived there had to work there, but many were old, sick and disabled, and could not. The workhouses were like Nazi Germany concentration camps, 100 years earlier, or like USSR labor camps in the 20th century. The UK state almost tried to kill off the poor by splitting up sexes and families, abusing them, torturing them and sending them into what almost was slavery and starvation. The workhouses were supposed to be bad so poor people should ned seek help from the UK state. The workhouses were said to be "voluntary", but today they would be considered a crime against humanity. Only the starving went there to starve.

    Prisons were not better at that time, with hard penal labor. The prisoners had to work hard with and breaking rocks and running on treadwheels pumping water. Some were even sent to Australia for penal labor.

    Conditions became much better during the late 1800's in both prisons and workhouses, with social liberal reforms, progressing democracy with expanded voting rights, more human value and that stuff.

    It's interesting because the UK at that time threatened some humans in a way that in the 20th century only existed in totalitarian states.

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