by brswes on April 28th, 2006

brswes

Question

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There are two outs with runners on second and third base. The batter hits a home run over the fence, but misses first base and the umpire calls him out on the appeal. Do the two runs score?

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  • by Henry Hascup on April 28th, 2006

    Henry Hascup

    NO!

    No run shall score during a play in which the third out is made by the batter runner before he touches first base.

    Here's an Example I found:

    One out, Jones on second, Smith on first. The batter, Brown, hits safely. Jones scores. Smith is out on the throw to the plate. Two outs. But Brown missed first base. The ball is thrown to first, an appeal is made, and Brown is out. Three outs. Since Jones crossed the plate during a play in which the third out was made by the batter runner before he touched first base, Jones' run does not count.

    http://www.baseball.ch/2003/AS/HE/RE/rule12.htm

    It would be the same if the batter hit a home run & missed first base. No run shall score during a play in which the third out is made by the batter runner before he touches first base.

    Comments
    • The key element here is that it is first base. If it was second, the runs would still count because it was not a force appeal

      jed1979

      by jed1979 on May 14th, 2006

    • technically, this isn't a force. There is a slight terminology difference when referring to a batter/runner trying to run to first then at any other base. Even though the two scenarios are treated exactly the same.

      When the BR doesn't get to first safely it is exactly that "failed to get to first safely", other bases the runners are "forced out"

      tibear

      by tibear on February 11th, 2008

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