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by Smart2 is back! Did you miss me? on January 23rd, 2009
It is almost ALWAYS the car in rear who is at fault. Despite the fact that the woman admitted culpability and caused the accident, the line of reasoning is that the car in the back should leave enough room to stop in ANY case. Not always practical, but it sounds good in theory.
I'm not sure it would be worthwhile to fight it. How does your insurance company feel about it? They should be able to fight it or pay it depending on what their counsel thinks about the case.
If a person's actions have a direct causal effect in the death of a stranger, is that a crime or a civil problem?
by Fr Joe on April 2nd, 2011
| 1 person likes this
What happens if the person that I need to sue because they caused my accident doesn't have money?
by Meg1117 on January 25th, 2011
| 1 person likes this
How long does it usually take to get car insurance?
by ivanchatanu on December 2nd, 2010
| 1 person likes this
Can I refile a claim if at first I did not claim Workmans Comp and it happened on the job? My employer said to file with Workmans Comp.
by Debbi_P on March 28th, 2011
| 1 person likes this
I hit another car from behind two years ago,no one reported to the hospital,no visible damage to either car.
by hans65 on November 26th, 2010
| 1 person likes this
You're reading My husband rearended a woman after she got in front of him, slammed on her brakes and admitted it was her fault to the cops, now she is sueing< he didnt get a ticket, neither did she, should we fight this or just pay, hes a truck driver and may loose job.
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