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by Want To Sleep With A Miner on January 4th, 2009

Want To Sleep With A Miner

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Why would God spend the entire Old Testament telling people there's only one of Him, then in the New Testament reveal that there's actually 3?

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  • by not4shallow on January 4th, 2009

    not4shallow

    If one has really studied the OT He does not "spend the entire" OT saying there's one Him. Genesis 1:26-"Let US make man in OUR image, according to OUR likeness..." Why are the words US and OUR used? And that's just a beginning of the way a student of the Bible comes to understand that trinity of Godhead.

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    • Then why didn't the rest of the OT feature statements like "Thou shalt have no other gods before Us" or the exclamation point "We are the Lord"?

      Want To Sleep With A Miner

      by Want To Sleep With A Miner on January 4th, 2009

    • One has to study the original language terminology-or learn from a well-taught Bible teacher to understand the concept. Of course, AB is not the place to teach the Bible, but I'll give you one more tidbit. The first sentence in Genesis says, "In the beginning, God..." that Hebrew word for God is ELOHIM. It expresses an intensification of the depth and breadth of God. One analogy is to look at a cluster of grapes. Each grape is an individual, but in plurality they are all the same.

      not4shallow

      by not4shallow on January 5th, 2009

    • most scholars, at least ones that aren't trinitarians, will tell you that in ancient hebrew, pluralizing a singular is an honorific device.
      .
      this isn't the case in modern hebrew, tho, and i don't know where they gathered enough evidence to come to that conclusion.
      .
      another theory i heard is that god is conversing with his angels, but i think it's a much less popular one.

      Sympho de Proggy

      by Sympho de Proggy on June 21st, 2010

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