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by Anonymous on December 4th, 2005

Anonymous

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What book in the Bible refers to the Catholic Church as being the one true church?

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  • by Ignatius on March 10th, 2006

    Ignatius

    The presence or absence of any given word in the Bible is by no means a test of whether Christians should believe it, or use it.

    Cases in point:

    Locate the word "Trinity" in the Word of God?
    Locate the word "Incarnation" in the Word of God?
    Locate "wedding rings" in the Word of God?
    Locate "guardian angels" in the Word of God?
    Locate the term "altar call" in the Word of God?
    Locate the terms "sinner's prayer" in the Word of God?

    Can't be done! Yet many Christians believe in all of the above. At least half of my list is Biblical, and 1/3 of it critical to the doctrines of Christianity!

    Now, where do we find the very first use of the name Catholic Church?

    That's easy to show. Do you know who used the term and who discipled him into the faith? His name is Ignatius of Antioch and he was a close friend, and disciple of St. John. This is the very same John who wrote the Gospel, 3 epistles and the book of Revelation. He was the last of the apostles to die and the only one to die of natural causes. He wrote Revelation in about 96 AD and then passed away in about 99. Ignatius became bishop of the church at Antioch and was himself martyred by being thrown to wild animals in 110. In 107 he wrote a letter to the church at Smryna in which he said the following.

    "CHAP. VIII.--LET NOTHING BE DONE WITHOUT THE BISHOP.

    See that ye all follow the bishop, even as Christ Jesus does the Father, and the presbytery as ye would the apostles. Do ye also reverence the deacons, as those that carry out[through their office] the appointment of God. Let no man do anything connected with the Church without the bishop. Let that be deemed a proper(18) Eucharist, which is[administered] either by the bishop, or by one to whom he has entrusted it. Wherever the bishop shall appear, there let the multitude[of the people] also be; by the bishop, or by one to whom he has entrusted it. Wherever the bishop shall appear, there let the multitude[of the people] also be; even as, wherever Jesus Christ is, there is the Catholic Church. It is not lawful without the bishop either to baptize or to celebrate a love-feast; but whatsoever he shall approve of, that is also pleasing to God, so that everything that is done may be secure and valid.(2) even as where Christ is, there does all the heavenly host stand by, waiting upon Him as the Chief Captain of the Lord's might, and the Governor of every intelligent nature. It is not lawful without the bishop either to baptize, or to offer, or to present sacrifice, or to celebrate a love-feast.(1) But that which seems good to him, is also well-pleasing to God, that everything ye do may be secure and valid."
    http://catholicfirst.com/thefaith/churchfathers/volume01/ignatius06.cfm


    Now Ignatius would not have used that name if it wasn't something that the church recognized and called itself before that time, so that means that the name was already accepted by the believers even before St. John passed away. It doesn't have to be in the Bible...it's a historical FACT. (Unless of course you want to assert that perhaps St. John taught his converts wrong!!!)

    Nowhere in the Bible does it say that the Bible is only source of what Christians believe in fact St. Paul tells St.Timothy that something else is the pillar and ground of the truth. (1st Timothy 3:15) "But if I tarry long, that thou mayest know how thou oughtest to behave thyself in the house of God, which is the church of the living God, the pillar and ground of the truth."

    Does the Bible say that it contains all that Christians know about what Jesus said and did? Look here at the last 2 verses of the Gospel of John. "24 This is that disciple who giveth testimony of these things, and hath written these things; and we know that his testimony is true. 25 But there are also many other things which Jesus did; which, if they were written every one, the world itself, I think, would not be able to contain the books that should be written."

    That is the apostle John speaking right there!

    Now, unless one is willing to assert that John may have taught his friends and disciples error and that they were stupid enough to die for those beliefs, then you pretty much have to accept that the historical evidence of link to the apostles is there. To allege differently attempts to deny the verifiable historical facts.

    So...who's interpretation of what the Bible means are you going to accept? That of a guy (2 guys really...look up Polycarp! http://www.catholicfirst.com/thefaith/churchfathers/volume01/polycarp2.cfm) who was trained by an apostle and died for the faith or someone who came along 500 years later with a different interpretation, or even worse some modern day preacher who wrote or preached something different?

    Who was closer to the source?

    Comments

    • Very, very good Ignatius.

      Charlie Patin

      by Charlie Patin on March 17th, 2006

    • historical evidence - it sure is.

      Alatea

      by Alatea on March 17th, 2006

    • Catholicism is never mentioned in the Bible directly.

      Answers101

      by Answers101 on March 20th, 2006

    • Catholocism not mentioned, created 100s of years later aside from pharisees. Early church was baptists - Acts 8:38

      Joshua Zambrano

      by Joshua Zambrano on March 21st, 2006

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