by Anonymous on February 21st, 2008

Anonymous

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How does a translator determine whether "et-ha-'adam" should be translated as a "singular" man or "plural" mankind. Is there a grammar rule?

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  • by Ephraim on August 1st, 2008

    Ephraim

    Well, contextually would be the best way. But almost always when "ha" (the) is added to the word, it refers to man and not mankind. Today, in modern Hebrew, someone would instead use "ha-enoshut" to refer to mankind.

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