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None. The only reason the wife has a legal recourse against the husband is that their marriage is a contract, and one which he has presumably violated. Adultery itself is not an illegal act, as I understand it; the crime there is breach of contract. (I suppose it could be argued that the other woman is an accessory to that breach of contract, but I know of no precedent for this.)
Edit: In retrospect, if the affair caused significant trouble to the wife personally (e.g. an expensive divorce), she could always sue the other woman for damages. But that's not a promise or even a suggestion that it might work.
More Edit: I stand corrected, but as can be read in the link behind the comment, the conditions really had to be just right. It would be difficult to prove that quantifiable damage was done.
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