I am not sure where you got the idea that the Africans did not have the wheel and that the Europeans did. Further, to clarify, a "few centuries ago" puts us at around 1500 or 1600 AD, America had been colonised by then. Perhaps you meant to go back further than that.
Africa had civilizations that had been constructing irrigation systems, monuments and chariots (intially from the Mideast) before the last remnants of the last ice age had fled. Dynastys had come and gone, while Europeans were still living in small family groups of 8-10 people per village (and these villages were very rudimentary). During the Byzantine period of history, Africa and the mideast (also called the Near East) had been so succesful that the grains and timber were over harvested to supply the Europeans that now began to rise in the Mediterranean. The hills became unstable due to the depleted timber and the landscape we see today would have looked drastically different. Rome specifically, relied so heavily on the African grains that Roman garrisons could not be spared in Alexandria when Romes northern borders were being challanged ca. 40 AD. To retain control of the port town Alexandria (next to Egypt) was to rule the world. The idea that all the grain came from Europe is perhaps a myth sprung from the fact that a hybrid of grain was produced in Italy (later on) that was softer making it easier to process and easier on the teeth, which otherwise were worn down. As for the utilization of the wheel, I am confused about the vast amount of misinformation floating around about the European's bringing the wheel to the shores. The wheel is the metaphore for the age of man extending beyond our records and our memories. It has always been used as far as any archaeological research will ever show and to try and say who had it first is conjecture. All the elements of the main question are wholly incorrect: mathematics, astronomy, cartography and ingenius agricultural know how was in Africa and the Mideast, long before it spread to anywhere else. Any advances that were made were done so by adding on to previous knowledge, what we know today could never have been known 300 years ago because we have taken baby steps to get to where we are. Could a nuclear reactor have ever been created in Galileo's time? Of course not, because you can not get to "c" without first going through "a" and "b."
If the lack of civilization you are referring to is with the small nomadic tribes in mind, these are not a regionalized occurance, every continent has their nomads, it is whether or not the surrounding civilizations allow them to exist. These tribes of nomads are considered by most cultures to be pariahs benefiting off the hard work of others. In America the early European settlers that refused to settle down and conform were called free grazers and were often harrassed or murdered (there is a Kevin Costner movie about this). In Eastern Europe they are now branded Gypsies.
Because the most recent cultures come from Europe doesn't mean that they are more civilized or were the first. That is not only short sighted but is the exact opposite of the truth. History, or more accurately, prehistory goes back further in time than many are aware.
Comments
Thorough and informative.
by Jodie44 on June 5th, 2005
The question was referring to Sub-Saharan Africa, not Egypt or Carthage. Sub-Saharran Africa had none of these things.
by doggerd on July 20th, 2005
The question obviously was about sub-saharan Africa.
by jwmbiz on August 5th, 2005
Nowhere in the question does it say Sub-sahara! If you want Sub-sahara ask about it--the ridicule smacks of racism.
by Athena5 on August 8th, 2005
Also a very good answer.
by lynnenorth on October 19th, 2005
Right on. Why do others think Africa only means sub-saharan? Is it racism?
by Anon on October 27th, 2005
good answer, check out mine if you have time
by Mr. McClister on April 17th, 2006