- NEW!
by laser on September 13th, 2011
Does God have someone HE calls God?
by mrinsane7066 on May 5th, 2012
| 2 people like this
Is Jesus calling on you now??
by WABOO on May 8th, 2012
| 6 people like this
If we found Jesus's grave, should we exhume the body?
by John McCain on May 5th, 2012
| 1 person likes this
Do we know if Jesus could read and write?
by AAUGH! on May 10th, 2012
| 4 people like this
If jesus was so good then why didn't he write a book?
by Ombliss22 on May 10th, 2012
| 5 people like this
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Comments
Jehovah is a mis-transliteration of Yahweh.
by canoeguide on September 13th, 2011
& still not Jesus.
by laser on September 13th, 2011
What is the correct translation of Yahweh?
by Texasescimo on September 13th, 2011
Yahweh.
by canoeguide on September 14th, 2011
I thought that Yahweh was considered to be the most likely way of pronouncing the tetragrammaton in Hebrew?
by Texasescimo on September 14th, 2011
Ah! There you are! Speaking Hebrew. No need for complications.
William of Ockham said, "Non sunt entia multiplicanda praeter necessitatium." (Any educated person back then spoke Latin: Things should not be made more complicated than necessary; literally, "[It's] not necessary to multiply things beyond themselves.")
by canoeguide on September 14th, 2011
Yahweh is just a scholarly guess. The Divine Name was most likely three syllables, possibly Yehowah. It is perfectly acceptable to pronounce the name in the language we speak. Jehovah in English, Geova in Italian, etc.
by nick batchelor on September 14th, 2011
Needless complication.
by canoeguide on September 14th, 2011
Yes, I agree. It does not make much difference if we are speaking or reading Hebrew if we ascertain the Divine name to be Yahweh or Yehowah. Although there is evidence that Yehowah is the most likely Hebrew pronunciation.
To simplify things, we pronounce names in our own language and do not usually try to imitate the original pronunciation. Even scholars who are aware of the issues of original pronunciation of these names usually use the modern pronunciation, not the ancient, when speaking about them.
Besides, the Bible itself shows there is nothing wrong with translating a person’s name that often sounds nothing like the original language in spelling or pronunciation.
by nick batchelor on September 14th, 2011
Look at the names in the KJV and compare them to the Hebrew Names Version. Jehoshaphat becomes Yehoshafat. Jehoash becomes Yeho'ash. I have heard many complain about using an English form of the divine name but most don’t complain about using an English form of the other names. Many will say that the tetragrammaton had no vowels and therefore is unpronounceable. It is my understanding that in the original language, the other names did not have vowels either.
http://www.blueletterbible.org/Bible.cfm?b=2Ki&c=12&t=KJV#vrsn/18
2 Kings 12:18 (KJV) And Jehoash king of Judah took all the hallowed things that Jehoshaphat, and Jehoram, and Ahaziah, his fathers, kings of Judah, had dedicated, and his own hallowed things, and all the gold [that was] found in the treasures of the house of the LORD, and in the king's house, and sent [it] to Hazael king of Syria: and he went away from Jerusalem.
2 Kings 12:18 (HNV) Yeho'ash king of Yehudah took all the holy things that Yehoshafat and Yehoram and Achazyah, his fathers, kings of Yehudah, had dedicated, and his own holy things, and all the gold that was found in the treasures of the house of the LORD, and of the king's house, and sent it to Haza'el king of Aram: and he went away from Yerushalayim.
by Texasescimo on September 14th, 2011
"Look at the names in the KJV and compare them to the Hebrew Names Version. Jehoshaphat becomes Yehoshafat. Jehoash becomes Yeho'ash."
You are going backwards. Jehoshaphat does not become anything, it is a transliteration of something; likewise your 2nd example is reasoning from a result to a cause and therefore is a logical fallacy.
"I have heard many complain about using an English form of the divine name but most don’t complain about using an English form of the other names. Many will say that the tetragrammaton had no vowels and therefore is unpronounceable. It is my understanding that in the original language, the other names did not have vowels either."
Here we have the good old misdirection; an issue not connected with the opening one used to divert attention. Because I don't mention them is no indication I would approve of them. Similarities is not the issue here. Mishandling of other names is not the issue here. And just where does the bible have anything to say about any translation?
by canoeguide on September 14th, 2011
Semantics.
Obviously from the original language, יהושפט Yĕhowshaphat is translated as Jehoshaphat.
I thought that you were familiar with the KJV as you seem to have more complaints about it than I do, although you rarely understand what I am saying in our threads as you thought that I was defending the KJV when I was pointing out an error in it in one of our threads.
Most people would understand that when I am showing that a word in the KJV becomes or parallels another word in the Hebrew Names Version that I was not saying the Bible was written in English and then transliterated to Hebrew.
I don't see anything wrong at all with translating something into the common language of the people. I call a snake a snake you probably call it a נָחָשׁ nachash.
Quote: "And just where does the bible have anything to say about any translation?" That seems to be your self condemning beef as noted in your comment on September 13th, 2011.
The Bible being written in the common language of the people of the time rather Hebrew, Aramaic, or Greek does not seem to have a problem using the common language of the people. I wonder why John 19:20 records a writing in 3 different languages? Why not just write it in one language and force everyone to use one language instead of this "Needless complication"?
(John 19:20) Therefore many of the Jews read this title, because the place where Jesus was impaled was near the city; and it was written in Hebrew, in Latin, in Greek.
by Texasescimo on September 14th, 2011
One thing for sure, Jehoshaphat is no more a "mis-transliteration," than Jehovah. One could be critical of every Hebrew name transliterated to English but what for?
by nick batchelor on September 14th, 2011
Back to the Q.
Are Jesus and Jehovah Not the Same? No.
by laser on September 15th, 2011
Jesus is the Son, Jehovah is His God and Father. Not the same being.
by nick batchelor on September 15th, 2011
yes, nick no not the same being.
anil asked the question:)
by laser on September 16th, 2011
Laswer, how did you know that Jehovah is not Jesus? Many think they are the same.
by Texasescimo on January 27th, 2012