- NEW!
by madmat on July 8th, 2007
How do I add my site to Deliverance Ministries?
by Answerbag Staff on August 16th, 2010
| 1 person likes this
What is the meaning of Bishop Jugis'coat of arms?
by Answerbag Staff on August 7th, 2010
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Who was St. Catherine of Siena?
by Answerbag Staff on August 2nd, 2010
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if ther is a superior being ie. god buddha godess etc, how come they never apear or speak directly to all of us and prove their existance?
by Ginger_B on May 15th, 2012
| 1 person likes this
Could it be possible that Cain (Genesis 4:14)kjv
is the man on the Great White Throne (Rev.20:11)kjv
only one to have said it by mouth?
by DAIXAI2012 on May 18th, 2012
| 1 person likes this
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Comments
Isaiah 9:6
For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and he shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The Everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.
by Beamer on February 27th, 2008
Philipians 2:6
Who being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God.
by Beamer on February 27th, 2008
John 1:1
In the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God and the Word was GOd.
John1:10-11
He was in the world, and the world was made by him, and the world knew him not. He came unto his own and his own recieved him not.
by Beamer on February 27th, 2008
Isaiah 9:6 does not refer to Jesus.
by Mortaryan on March 27th, 2008
Really? Who does it refer to then?
by robshope on March 30th, 2008
the accurate translation of john 1:1 says "the Word was >>>A<<< God" but nice try beamer...and mortaryan,,,nice try, it is talking about jesus,but doesn't call jesus "GOD ALMIGHTY" it calls him a mighty god which he is he is godlike in his characteristics, and he is certainly mighty.
READ Luke 4:8... In reply Jesus said to him: “It is written, ‘It is Jehovah your God you must worship, and it is to him alone you must render sacred service.’”
by fastesteagle on January 2nd, 2009
This is where translation comparisons should come in to make sure what we're being taught is true. (Acts 17:11)
Philippians 2:6...New International Version reads... "Who, being in very nature God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped," Revised Standard reads..."...did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped"...What understanding is consistent with all of the scriptures? John 14:28 Jesus said "the Father is greater than I"...Since Jesus states the Father is Greater, how could they be equal? Which translations would be more accurate?
by Servant on January 9th, 2009
Actually, the wording of John 1:1 in the Greek is this:
En arche en o logos, kai o logos, en pros ton theon, kai thoes en o logos.
In The beginning was the word, and the word was with the God, and God was the word. Nowhere does it say the word was "a" god, but rather it says God was "the" word. You might want to take a look at the original Greek before you make claims to know that the "accurate" translation says that the Word was "a god".
In addition, the Old Testament clearly states over and over again that there is NO God beside, or besides our Creator.
by Heavendreamer on March 11th, 2009
Here is an unbiased article on the subject.
http://www.greeklatinaudio.com/john11.htm
Apparently "kai theos en o logos" should be translated as "Godlike (or divine or godly) was the Word" (see link above)
Other scriptures support this idea:
(taken from New International Version)
1 Corinthians 8:5,6 "For even if there are so-called gods, whether in heaven or on earth (as indeed there are many "gods" and many "lords"), yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom all things came and for whom we live; and there is but one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things came and through whom we live."
John 14:28 "...the Father is greater than I"
Don't think that this suggests that Jesus is of no importance!
His Father loves him very much (Matt 3:17) and his Father must really love US too, to let his beloved son die for our sins! (John 3:16)
The last thing Jesus wants is to take glory from his Father (John 12:28) by claiming someof the glory for himself.
by marcusarillius on April 17th, 2009
Awesome site! I just finished reading it with some friends who really know their Greek and they are in full agreement! Thanks for the link!
by jharbert on June 10th, 2009
Where does anyone (who supposedly knows Greek) get the idea that "theos" means"godlike"? The actual word means "a divinity" ie a God. The word "gods" in 1Cor8:5-6 does NOT support the meaning "godlike", but the accurate translation of "god(s)" [plural because it is speaking of "many."]
re:God Greater than Jesus- Notice in 1Cor8:5-6 it says that All Things came Through Christ Jesus? Notice it says that ALL THINGS come FROM God, THROUGH Jesus Christ. He is the Word of God that created ALL THINGS John 1:1-3
He spoke mainly "in proverbs, not plainly" He who has seen Him has seen The Father, ie God (see John 14:8-9/John 16:24-25)
God said He would pour out HIS Spirit upon all flesh(Joel 2:28)
The Spirit of God dwells in you 1 Corinth3:16/Colossians 1:27
The Lord IS that Spirit 1 Corinth3:16
"WE will come to him and make our dwelling with Him" John 14:
Read John 14 CAREFULLY and PRAYERFULLY
God Himself is the only Savior,Redeemer Isaiah 49:26/ Is47:4/Is 54:5/Is 60:16,(true)God
by Heavendreamer on July 10th, 2009
Heavendreamer, what does the word for "a" look like in 4th century common Greek?
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I understand that the Sinaiticus used a shortened form of Greek. What are the words for God in John 1:1 and John 1:2? http://www.codexsinaiticus.org/en/manuscript.aspx?=Submit Query&book=36&chapter=1&lid=en&side=r&zoomSlider=0
by Texasescimo on July 22nd, 2009
I'm not an expert, but I have looked into the original languages using concordances, lexicons, Hebrew & Greek texts online and in parallel bibles, a Hebrew-Greek study bible published by a Greek who also is a Scholar of the ancient language (Koine- the Greek used in biblical times & classical) I have also studied from books written by scholars on the manuscripts which have been discovered.
The word"God" used in most cases (& specifically in John's Gospel) is Theos: "a divinity" and is used specifically to for the Supreme God,(sometimes used figuratively for a ruler.)This word, according to Lexicons which give more detailed info, it was used by the heathen and adopted by New Testament writers as the name for the True God. In John 1:1 and 1:2, the definite article (the, the, that,etc.)is used, which means it is speaking of "the God" The def article is not used in the part that says "God was the word) but "was" is in the imperf.tense(continuous time past) meaning He "always was" God
by Heavendreamer on September 5th, 2009
Tesasescimo,
The word "a" does not seem to be something that is a specific word,though I could be wrong. As I said, I am not an "expert" but have studied a bit of beginner Greek. From what I can see in the texts provided to us from Greek manuscripts, the word "a" is used when the noun is singular. Ex:the noun is Theos, meaning God or divinity. When it is singular in the context & no definite article is present,it is usually translated as "God" or if obviously(from context)referring to pagan deity"god" or "a god" If it is plural in context,it is translated as "gods"
I don't really know if 4th century Greek varies from 2nd or 1st Century,but scholars use the available Greek manuscripts when translating. Since these are publicly known, it would be illogical to assume differently.The problems seem to lie, not usually in the text itself,but in the translator's adding punctuation,inserting words not in the original text etc.,sometimes causing misunderstanding.(see next comment)
by Heavendreamer on September 5th, 2009
(continued)
I believe that many translators fall short in translating original Greek texts to English,which is why I believe it is vital that we use bibles which do show the original text alongside the English,use concordances,lexicons etc. Punctuation, chapter headings, & some words (usually seen in italics) were not part of the original, but are added for a more smooth translation,to help find passages etc.
The voice of a god and not a man
phone Theon kai ouk anthropon
Theon=God/deity Ton Theon=The God/The Deity
Above,"a" is added for smoother translation, but is not in original text. In English, we write "a god", in Greek,they just wrote "god" but use a def article to indicate "the" God In this example, the words, "of" and "a" are not in the original, but clearly give the right meaning according to context of the passage. That's like if I wrote, "she rode horse" in Greek, they would translate it in English "She rode a horse"
by Heavendreamer on September 5th, 2009
One thing that might be important to consider, is that though the Codex Sinaiticus is the oldest "complete" bible we have, there are hundreds of manuscripts from earlier than that in the original Greek. Also, if we just take the writings of early church leaders (what many call "fathers" of the church) and even from some pagan writers, who quote scriptures, we could reconstruct almost the entire New Testament from those quotes alone.
Keep in mind that the fact that they were quoting these scriptures to one another, and many in major writings, that it would have been publicly known if they were misquoting.
I hope I was able to answer your questions.
by Heavendreamer on September 5th, 2009
p.s. Sorry it took me so long to get back to this, I had not realized you commented anything - I don't know if I had a message in my email or not, but had not visited this site in quite some time. I forget how I got back here and realized it, I think I was doing a google search on my username (since I use it at a lot of sites where I publish things) lol
by Heavendreamer on September 5th, 2009
on John1:1 a lot of ppl think it't mistranslated and Jesus is not God. Here is more from the apostle John that shows what he meant:
"That which was from "the beginning",which we have heard,
which we have seen with our eyes...concerning the Word of the Life. And the Life was made manifest & we have seen and bear witness & announce to you the Life Eternal which was with the Father, and was made manifest to us.." 1 John 1:1-2
*Notice that the Life Eternal is also called the "Word of Life" in verse 1. This "Word" of Life or Life Eternal, was "with the Father "in the beginning",& they saw & touched it/him. This is the same "Word" in John 1:1
"and we know that the Son of God has come and has given to us [dianoian :an inclination of character]so that we should know the one true, and we are IN the one true, in His son Jesus Christ; THIS ONE is the true God and the Life Eternal.
*This One is the Life Eternal,the same one as the "Word" of Life, and is also the True God.
by Heavendreamer on September 5th, 2009
Sorry, forgot to insert the scripture ref for the second part
"and we know that the son of God has come and has given us thought (inclination of character) so that we should know the One True, and we are IN the One True, in His son Jesus Christ; This One is the True God and the Life Eternal."
1John 5:20
1John 1-2: "the Word of Life" they heard, saw, touched etc. was revealed to them and they bore witness of him. He is the Eternal Life that they witness to, which was "with the Father" and was revealed to them, and which they declare to us.
1John5:20 The son of God gave them understanding so they would know the ONE TRUE. They are IN the ONE TRUE IN His Son. Therefore the ONE TRUE is the Son. The original says that THIS ONE (the one we are IN) is the Life Eternal and the True God.
John called "the Word" of Life, the Life Eternal - said that the Life Eternal was "with the Father" "in the beginning" then says the Life Eternal is the True God.
by Heavendreamer on September 5th, 2009
FOR THOSE WHO THING "GODLY" is the appropriate word in John1:1
"godly" or "godlike" is only used when the words used are an "idiom" or "figure of speech" common to the Greek language.In the translations section of the definition,you will see a mark like this :- indicating that the next words are different ways it has been translated. In the beginning of the Greek Dictionary of the Strong's exhaustive Concordance you will find explanations of various "signs" that are used in the definitions under "special symbols"
X (multiplication) denotes a rendering in the A.V. that results from an idiom peculiar to the Greek. For Example: in Heb 12:21, the whole Greek phrase in which entremos (#1790) appears is a way of expressing great anxiety. The same idiom is used about Moses in Acts7:32
*An idiom is a phrase whose meaning can't be determined by the literal definition of the phrase itself,but refers instead to a figurative meaning that is known through common use in a particular language.
by Heavendreamer on September 6th, 2009
*CONTINUED FROM COMMENT ABOVE THIS ONE
WHY "GODLY" IS NOT THE APPROPRIATE WORD IN JOHN 1:1
In the verse in John 1:1, there is no idiom (figure of speech) of the Greek language present, while in 2 Corinthians 11:2 there is, and therefore as a common figure of speech in the Greek language, it is translated to mean what it is already known to mean, instead of just using the word "God" which is literally there in the text.
by Heavendreamer on September 6th, 2009
Sorry I didnt finish my thought (above)
In John 1:1 there is no "idiom" or figure of speech, which is why the word is translated as normal, ie "God"
In 2 Corinthians 11:2, there is a figure of speech present, which is why the phrase is not "literally" translated as seen word for word, but instead translated as "godly jealousy" ( I don't know for sure which Greek words are used in that one since I am not familiar with all the Greek idioms, but I would think if you googled Greek idioms you could find it.)
So John 1:1 is tranlsated word for word, as it should be, but 2 Corinthians 11:2 is not. 2 Cor 11:2 correctly reads as "godly jealousy" while John 1:1 correctly reads as "God was the Word".
For those of you who would like a much fuller discussion showing proof that John 1:1 means that Jesus, the Word, is God, I am posting a full teaching with many proofs from scriptures on Facebook in "notes" section. I will include the address in a comment here once I have it finished
by Heavendreamer on September 6th, 2009
I found the idiom common in the Greek language which was translated into "Godly Jealousy"
(qeou zhlw) "zeal of God" is translated as "Godly Jealousy" because it had become a Greek idiom. It did not mean God's own jealousy/zeal, but a "godlike" jealousy, ie the good and right kind.
The place where I found this has a great explanation, and shows some other examples where idioms are translated not word for word, but based on the idioms, or "figures of speech" which were commonly used when the New Testament was written. Here is the Link: http://www.biblefacts.org/cult/faithgod.html
by Heavendreamer on September 6th, 2009
Heavendreamer, sorry, I have been out of town for 3 weeks and I am not likely to read all of your 11 post. One or two yes, three maybe, more than that not likely, 11 no.
by Texasescimo on September 8th, 2009
I read them all, but not the reference. It appears that you believe that John 1:1 could be translated different but that the rest of the Bible supports "the word was God", correct?
by Texasescimo on September 8th, 2009
Paul said God was manifest in the flesh and the fullness of God was in Jesus. There are many verses in teh bible that supports "the Word was God."
by ApstleofJC on September 18th, 2009
Isaiah 9:6 is talking about Jesus. He is the Child that was born. He is teh Everlasting Father, the Mightly God, Councelor, and Prince of Peace. I have studied the whole bible and God is called Mighty God many times unles the NWT translation omits these verses. I know it doesn't. Since God the Almighty is called the Mighty God of Israel, or just Mighty God, and noone disputes that Jesus is the Prince of Peace, then Jesus is the Mighty God of Israel. Thomas believed and said to Jesus "My Lord and my GOD!" No, he didn't look at Jesus and say "My Lord" and then look to heaven and say "and My God!"
by ApstleofJC on September 18th, 2009
There was nothing improper about Thomas’ referring to Jesus in that way. Thomas was saying that Jesus was “a god” to him, a divine, powerful one. But he was not saying that Jesus was Jehovah, which is why Thomas said, “my” God and not “the” God. How many of us at seeing something remarkable or unbelievable have said, “my god”?
15 Consider that just three verses later, at John 20:31, the Bible states: “But these have been written down that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ the Son of God.” All doubt as to what Thomas may have meant is dispelled here. The Bible writer John clearly says that Jesus is the Son of God, not Almighty God himself, The Most High God, The Supreme God, The God of gods.
To further show that Thomas was not referring to Jesus as “my God”, Mary Magdalene had just previously come to the room where the disciples were hiding and told them what the resurrected
Jesus had just told her found at John 20:17
(John 20:17-18) . . .Jesus said to her: “Stop clinging to me. For I have not yet ascended to the Father. But be on your way to my brothers and say to them, ‘I am ascending to my Father and YOUR Father and to my God and YOUR God.’” 18 Mary Mag´da•lene came and brought the news to the disciples: “I have seen the Lord!” and that he said these things to her.
Apparently Jesus has a God over him. ”my Father and YOUR Father and to my God and YOUR God”. Because it was eight days later that Jesus appeared before Thomas, do you not think they would have told Thomas what the resurrected Jesus said to Mary that Mary had passed on to them? Thomas knew that the same heavenly Father that he prayed to as God was the God of Jesus whom Jesus prayed to.
by BUSTER on November 13th, 2009
“The Word Was God”
AT JOHN 1:1 the King James Version reads: “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.” Trinitarians claim that this means that “the Word” (Greek, ho lo'gos) who came to earth as Jesus Christ was Almighty God himself.
Note, however, that here again the context lays the groundwork for accurate understanding. Even the King James Version says, “The Word was with God.” (Italics ours.) Someone who is “with” another person cannot be the same as the person they are with. In agreement with this, the Journal of Biblical Literature, edited by Jesuit Joseph A. Fitzmyer, notes that if the latter part of John 1:1 were interpreted to mean “the” God, this “would then contradict the preceding clause,” which says that the Word was with God.
Notice, too, how other translations render this part of the verse:
1808: “and the word was a god.” The New Testament in an Improved Version, Upon the Basis of Archbishop Newcome’s New Translation: With a Corrected Text.
1864: “and a god was the word.” The Emphatic Diaglott, interlinear reading, by Benjamin Wilson.
1928: “and the Word was a divine being.” La Bible du Centenaire, L’Evangile selon Jean, by Maurice Goguel.
1935: “and the Word was divine.” The Bible—An American Translation, by J. M. P. Smith and E. J. Goodspeed.
1946: “and of a divine kind was the Word.” Das Neue Testament, by Ludwig Thimme.
1950: “and the Word was a god.” New World Translation of the Christian Greek Scriptures
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1958: “and the Word was a God.” The New Testament, by James L. Tomanek.
1975: “and a god (or, of a divine kind) was the Word.” Das Evangelium nach Johannes, by Siegfried Schulz.
1978: “and godlike kind was the Logos.” Das Evangelium nach Johannes, by Johannes Schneider.
At John 1:1 there are two occurrences of the Greek noun the•os' (god). The first occurrence refers to Almighty God, with whom the Word was (“and the Word [lo'gos] was with God [a form of the•os']”). This first the•os' is preceded by the word ton (the), a form of the Greek definite article that points to a distinct identity, in this case Almighty God (“and the Word was with [the] God”).
On the other hand, there is no article before the second the•os' at John 1:1. So a literal translation would read, “and god was the Word.” Yet we have seen that many translations render this second the•os' (a predicate noun) as “divine,” “godlike,” or “a god.” On what authority do they do this?
The Koine Greek language had a definite article (“the”), but it did not have an indefinite article (“a” or “an”). So when a predicate noun is not preceded by the definite article, it may be indefinite, depending on the context.
The Journal of Biblical Literature says that expressions “with an anarthrous [no article] predicate preceding the verb, are primarily qualitative in meaning.” As the Journal notes, this indicates that the lo'gos can be likened to a god. It also says of John 1:1: “The qualitative force of the predicate is so prominent that the noun [the•os'] cannot be regarded as definite.”
So John 1:1 highlights the quality of the Word, that he was “divine,” “godlike,” “a god,” but not Almighty God. This harmonizes with the rest of the Bible, which shows that Jesus, here called “the Word” in his role as God’s Spokesman, was an obedient subordinate sent to earth by his Superior, Almighty God.
by BUSTER on November 13th, 2009
There are many other Bible verses in which almost all translators in other languages consistently insert the article “a” when translating Greek sentences with the same structure. For example, at Mark 6:49, when the disciples saw Jesus walking on water, the King James Version says: “They supposed it had been a spirit.” In the Koine Greek, there is no “a” before “spirit.” But almost all translations in other languages add an “a” in order to make the rendering fit the context. In the same way, since John 1:1 shows that the Word was with God, he could not be God but was “a god,” or “divine.” Joseph Henry Thayer, a theologian and scholar who worked on the American Standard Version, stated simply: “The Logos was divine, not the divine Being himself.” And Jesuit John L. McKenzie wrote in his Dictionary of the Bible: “Jn 1:1 should rigorously be translated . . . ‘the word was a divine being.’”
by BUSTER on November 13th, 2009
Just as FYI, "Jehova" is not the accurate name of the Hebrew / Christian God. Anybody familiar with Hebrew knows that vocolation of God's name (written in ancient manuscripts as the tetragrammaton) is Yaweh.
Jehovah is a word derived by combining the tetragrammaton with Adonai, and was used by Hebrews specifically to AVOID using the name of God (lest they inadvertnatly use it "in vain")!
Funny how the argument that New World Translation is more accurate because it includes the "true name of God" actually demonstrates the translation is inaccurate!
by Mikey_li on December 3rd, 2009
Perhaps this sockpuppet can direct us to the most accurate translation. I personally have not seen one that uses Yaweh.
by Texasescimo on December 3rd, 2009
Jeopardy did ask this question and the correct answer was the New World Translation which is used by Jehovah Witness's
by Tyler_W7925 on September 27th, 2010
Most people believe that just because we do not know the correct pronunciation of "YHWH" then we should not even try to prounounce it in any way, and most of these people usually are those who believe in the trinity. But, most people don't know that people aren't even sure of the pronunciation of the name "Jesus". So, therefore, if they are equal, which the trinity belief says they are, then wouldn't it be just as bad to say the name Jesus since we are unsure of the correct pronunciation? So at least trying to pronounce the name YHWH shouldn't be considered a political move, but that to draw close to God as says in James 4:8, to draw close to him, but, it is pretty hard to want to draw close to someone if you only know them by a title and not a name, so it's better to at least try to say his name.
by chipotle26 on October 26th, 2010
When Jesus told those religious leaders "before abraham was I AM" they knew what He was claiming.How can you not?Why don’t you just admit that you don’t believe Jesus was telling the truth because that's the truth ,you don’t believe HIS claims.Oh and stop getting my address out of the obituaries when someone in my family dies.You will NEVER get me on the JW path.
by savedbyjesus on November 18th, 2010
If you were saved by Jesus, you would not be hiding who you are and making sock-puppets with frivolous claims.
Quit making sock-puppet accounts. Can you name one person that I found in an obituary? Of course not because you do not know what you are talking about. Why would I get your address?
John 8:58 is another mistake. The context shows that it is a question about how Jesus has seen Abraham, not who he is. Within the context, the present tense of “I AM” does not work. Several translators recognize that.
The New Testament Or Rather The New Covenant-S.Sharpe: "I was before Abraham".
A Bible, A New Translation- J.Moffatt: "I existed before Abraham was born"
The New Testament in the Language of the Day-W.G.Beck: "I was before Abraham"
The Simple English Bible: "I was alive before Abraham was born"
The Twentieth Century New Testament: "before Abraham existed I was"
The New Testament in the Language of the People- C.B.Williams: "I existed before Abraham was born"
The Bible-An American Translation-E.Goodspeed(NT): "I existed"
The Unvarnished New Testament-A.Gaus: "I have already been"
The Authentic New Testament-H.J.Schonfield: "I existed"
The Complete Gospels-R.J.Miller(Editor): "I existed"
New American Standard Bible 1963-1970 editions: "I have been"-alternative rendering.
.
In the ancient Greek, there was not a separate verb to reflect past tense or present tense. Is the question at John 8:58 "how have you seen Abraham when you are not yet 50" or is the question "who are you"? "Before Abraham was, I am" makes no since at all. It should be past tense. "Before Abraham was, I have been" answers the question and is grammatically correct.
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If someone in the Bible other than Jesus said "I am” we would not assume they were saying they were God. In many translations, they capitalize “I AM” at John 8:58. Would it mean the same if they capitalized it when Paul said "I AM WHAT I AM"? http://bible.cc/1_corinthians/15-10.htm The same word is found at John 9:9, yet the healed man obviously is not God. http://www.blueletterbible.org/Bible.cfm?t=DBY&b=Jhn&c=9&v=9&x=30&y=6#vrsn/9
Compare John 8:58 to John 3:28 The same word rendered "I am" at John 8:58 is at John 3:28 twice. King James renders it both times as "I am". "Ye yourselves bear me witness, that I said, I am not the Christ, but that I am sent before him." Most other translations render the first one as "I am" but the second "I am" as something like "I have been". That is because the context calls for it, just like at John 8:58. Of course, I guess one could just render it as "I am" and try to use that for proof that John the Baptist is God.
http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John%203:28;%20John%208:58&version=KJV;ESV;HCSB;NASB;NKJV
Notice G1510, due to context, is rendered as "I am" and as "I have been" at John 3:28
http://www.blueletterbible.org/Bible.cfm?b=Jhn&c=3&v=28&t=ESV#conc/28
http://www.blueletterbible.org/Bible.cfm?b=Jhn&c=3&v=28&t=ESV#vrsn/28
http://www.blueletterbible.org/Bible.cfm?t=ESV&b=1Cr&c=15&v=10&x=43&y=4#conc/10
by Texasescimo on November 18th, 2010
I believe 100% of what Jesus said.
(John 17:3) This means everlasting life, their taking in knowledge of you, the only true God, and of the one whom you sent forth, Jesus Christ.
(John 14:28) YOU heard that I said to YOU, I am going away and I am coming [back] to YOU. If YOU loved me, YOU would rejoice that I am going my way to the Father, because the Father is greater than I am.
by Texasescimo on November 18th, 2010
Anyone who knows a little Koine Greek knows the vowel "a" before a word is assummed as long as the context allows it, but it is not always a mandated rule. Even in the New Testament when speaking about 'God the Father' one would not use "a" since the sentence speaks about Him. What the NWT has done, it has stripped Jesus of His rightful DIVINITY. That JW's version of the Bible tries hard, but only "IGNORANT" people fall for its premises. May Jesus, GOD, have mercy on their wretched souls!!!
Peace (Repent first, JW's)
by Spew on April 18th, 2011
A drive by puppet Spewing venom?
Guess you did not read the scriptures? I will post them for you again as well as another that may help you to see if you want to.
The Father is the only true God. That leaves out others including his son whom he sent forth. The Father is greater than the Son as in the Son is not Almighty God. For Christians there is one God, the Father and one Lord, Jesus Christ.
(John 17:3) This means everlasting life, their taking in knowledge of you, the only true God, and of the one whom you sent forth, Jesus Christ.
(John 14:28) YOU heard that I said to YOU, I am going away and I am coming [back] to YOU. If YOU loved me, YOU would rejoice that I am going my way to the Father, because the Father is greater than I am.
(1 Corinthians 8:5-6) For even though there are those who are called “gods,” whether in heaven or on earth, just as there are many “gods” and many “lords,” 6 there is actually to us one God the Father, out of whom all things are, and we for him; and there is one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things are, and we through him.
by Texasescimo on April 18th, 2011