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by peterpam on June 21st, 2007
What was Paul's View of the Godhead?
by Brianna_J on November 3rd, 2010
| 1 person likes this
Can someone help me out with this? Does it actually say anywhere in the Bible that David is a descendant of Isaac? If so, where?
by dredgegolgari on December 10th, 2010
| 3 people like this
Using any bible, (KJV,International, Catholic, etc.)Can you prove by text alone that other people existed outside the garden of Eden?
by Anonymous on January 15th, 2012
| 3 people like this
Favorite Verse in the Bible?
by mjohnson22 on January 14th, 2012
| 1 person likes this
In Genesis when it says "male AND female he created them", is that talking about Lady Gaga?
by Frank N Furter on May 28th, 2011
| 5 people like this
You're reading "Thus saith the LORD...I am the LORD...I form the light, and create darkness: I make peace, and create evil: I the LORD do all these things." Isaiah 45:1-7. Why do some Christians blame Satan for evil, when the Bible quotes Yahweh as saying He creates it?
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Comments
I don't know why your telling me this, im not the one who posted the Q!? You say "God is declaring", the quote is quoted by Isaiah, meaning that is his interpretation, your input only modifies his interpretation and everyones elses and so on and so on. So what actually are you trying to convince me of?
by Sunblynd 5.0 on June 22nd, 2007
My sincere apologies Sunblynd I have edited the answer to addres Antigone Rising. I did not mean to drag you in, it was early morning and I obviously was unobservant. Iam trying to convince nobody just arguing the point that was made from a text that has been mis-used in the question.
by peterpam on June 22nd, 2007
So, the definition of "evil", "disaster", or "calamity" changes so much that it used to be that one who created these things was not evil? I'm not sure I'm following the "connotation of the word" argument. If that is true, then does that not also mean that the word "evil" in relation to Satan also didn't mean He was actually evil? How have I misused it? I quote it exactly, and Yahweh says he creates evil/calamity/disaster. Funny how you have to interpret it in just the "correct" way, or it has been misused.
by AntigoneRising on June 22nd, 2007
It is simple really as I have said in my answer to the question the word that was translated evil in the 17th century was either a poor translation or it has evolved to mean something quite different today. The accurate translation of the word is calamity and this fits the context of the whole flow of the passage under question. It has nothing to do with twisting or changing words for the sake of anything it is just accurate to the text.
by peterpam on June 22nd, 2007
Makes one wonder what other words are misinterpreted?
by Sunblynd 5.0 on June 22nd, 2007
So, that means that Satan is neither evil or brings evil. He brings calamity, just like Yahweh. So what differentiates them?
by AntigoneRising on June 22nd, 2007
You must be cosistent and would expect different words used in translation, it is not calamity every time, evil is evil but if you are only content to play mind and word games then there really is no point carrying on futile argument
by peterpam on June 22nd, 2007
Evil and evil is like nothing is nothing, that which defines the absense of the light of God is defined as evil. Satanic, or Satan, all the same thing, the word ultimate definition is darkness, emtyness, nothingness, and therefore it does not exist.
by Sunblynd 5.0 on June 23rd, 2007
The point is that words evolve over time. King James English is very different from 21st Century English. If I had called you gay a hundred years ago, I would have been calling you happy. That meaning has changed 'slightly' since then. While the same word could once describe 'evil' and 'calamity' and mean the same thing, time has taken its toll, and they are no longer synonyms.
by LarryH54 on July 22nd, 2011